Yes. The purpose for law is to do substantial justice, the rigid application of the law will be relaxed where it would lead to injustice. A contract which ought to be in writing and was not written, can nevertheless be valid where: i. There is an act of part performance by one of the party to the contract ii. Where the contract is one done under customary law iii. Where a land is sold by an order of the court. iv. Contracts entered into before the commencement of the laws that require that such contract be in writing. See WAKEMAN v MACKENZIE (1968) 2 ALL E.R 783